Infinite dimensions and the axiom of choice
There are no comments on this post.In a recent math.SE question, Thomas Andrews asked whether or not the existence of an infinite linearly independent set in a vector space which is not finitely generated requires the axiom of choice.
The answer is positive. It does require the axiom of choice. The counterexample is due to Läuchli who constructed a model in which there was a vector space which was not finitely generated, but every proper subspace is finitely generated. Given such vector space it is obvious that no infinite set can be linearly independent.
So, how much choice are we talking about here? Well, let's review the obvious approach:
LetOkay, induction. So we're usingbe a vector space which is not finitely generated, we will construct by induction an infinite linearly independent set. Let be any arbitrary non-zero vector in . Suppose
were chosen for , then pick to be an arbitrary vector not in the span of . We can pick such vector because itself is not finitely generated so it cannot be equal to this span. Clearly the set
is linearly independent. Suppose that is zero then for we have that was taken from the span of which is a contradiction to the choice of .
Well, to quote a recently elected U.S. president from his 2008 campaign "Yes we can!".
Theorem. Assume
The proof itself is quite similar to the proof that there are no Dedekind-finite sets in the presence of
Proof. Let
Being lazy, we can take
Suppose that for
Okay, this much is great. But what about the converse? Besides, vector spaces are additional structure. If the axiom stating that every infinite set is Dedekind-infinite is strictly weaker than
Well those are two distinct statements, and it's unclear whether or not they are equivalent. Let us abbreviate them as
- Does
imply ? - What choice principles does
prove? - What choice principles does
prove?
It is clear that if we can show that the last two questions have different answers then the first question is answered negatively, and that if
But what about the other implications? Well. So far I have no answer. But after meddling with this for a day or so, I will sign off with a conjecture:
Conjecture.
and none of the implications are reversible. .
Of course the first part follows from the second and the third combined, but even if those are inaccurate or incorrect I still feel that the first part is the most fundamental point of this conjecture.
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